BCECE Biology MCQs Practice Questions

Selection through the Bihar Combined Entrance Competitive Examination (BCECE) is based on the candidate's performance in the exam, which determines their rank and eligibility for the counseling process. Here’s how the selection process works:

1. Entrance Exam Performance

   - Candidates take the BCECE entrance exam, where their scores in subjects relevant to their chosen field (e.g., Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, Biology) determine their rank.

   - The exam follows a competitive pattern with multiple-choice questions and negative marking for incorrect answers.

   - Higher scores result in a better rank, which increases the chances of selection for the desired course and college.

2. Merit List and Rank

   - Based on the scores, a merit list is prepared, categorizing students by rank.

   - Each course has a separate merit list depending on the subjects chosen, such as engineering (PCM), pharmacy (PCB or PCM), and agriculture/medical (PCB).

   - Reserved categories (like SC/ST/OBC/EWS) have separate cutoffs, potentially improving rank relative to general candidates.

3. Counseling Process

   - Counseling Rounds: Qualified candidates are invited for counseling in multiple rounds based on rank.

   - Choice Filling and Locking: During counseling, candidates choose their preferred courses and colleges. They can prioritize their options, and once confirmed, choices are locked.

   - Document Verification: Candidates must verify their eligibility by providing original documents, including educational certificates, caste/category certificates, BCECE admit card, scorecard, and more.

   - Seat Allotment: Based on rank, availability of seats, and choices filled, seats are allotted to candidates. Higher-ranked students have a better chance of securing seats in top programs and colleges.

   - Reporting and Admission: After seat allotment, candidates report to the designated college for admission, confirming their seats by paying the admission fees.

4. Reservation System

   - BCECE has a reservation system for categories like SC, ST, EBC, BC, RCG (Reserved Category Girls), and Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), which helps candidates from these groups secure seats with relaxed criteria.

5. Upgradation and Additional Rounds**

   - Upgradation: Candidates who aren’t satisfied with their allotted seat can opt for upgradation in the next counseling rounds.

   - Spot Counseling: If seats remain vacant after regular rounds, BCECE may hold a spot counseling round, where unfilled seats are allotted to remaining eligible candidates.

6. Factors Affecting Selection

   - Exam Score and Rank: Primary criteria for selection.

   - Reservation Category: Reserved category candidates may have a lower cutoff.

   - Choice Preferences: Courses and colleges prioritized by the candidate during choice filling.

   - Seat Availability: Availability of seats in specific courses and colleges also impacts selection.

For the latest updates, it’s essential to regularly check the BCECEB official website during the selection and counseling period, as procedures and dates may vary each year.

1 The biological definition of a species depends on

(a) the geographical distribution of two groups of organisms

(b) reproductive isolation of two groups of organisms

(c) anatomical and development differences between the two groups of organisms

(d) difference in the adoptation of two groups of organisms

2 Binomial nomenclature of plants was given by

(a) Engler

(b) Linnaeus

(c) Prantl

(d) Both (a) and (b)

3. Which of the following is not characteristic of Gram positive bacteria?

(a) Cell wall is smooth

(b) Mesosomes are distinctive prominent

(c) Basal body of flagellum contains two rings

(d) Murein content of cell wall is 70-80%.

A. During conjugation in Paramecium

(a) out of the four micronuclei formed, three degenerate

(b) out of six macronuclei formed, four degenerate

(c) zygote nucleus undergoes eight successive division in each conjugant

(d) out of 16 nuclei, only four degenerate

5 Which one of the following viruses contains both DNA and RNA?

(a) Cyanophage

(b) Herpes virus

(c) Leuko virus

(d) Polio virus

6. Oil is reserve food in

(a) Chlamydomonas

(b) Oedogonium

(c) Vaucheria

(d) Chara

7. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times. As a result 

(a) there is no change in success rate of fertilization

(b) there is high degree of sterility

(c) one can conclude that the plant is apomictic

(d) self-fertilization is prevented

8. In Pinus, male cone bears a large number of

(a) ligules

(b) anthers

(c) microsporophylls

(d) megasporophylls

9. The canal system is characteristic feature of

(a) helminthes

(b) coelenterates

(c) sponges

(d) echinoderms

10. The excretory cells, Platyhelminthes are that are found in

(a) protonephridia

(b) flame cells

(c) solenocytes

(d) All of the above

11. The pseudocoelomate among these is

(a) Porifera

(b) Annelida

(c) Aschelminthes

(d) Mollusca

12. Radula is found in

(a) Pila sp

(b) Chiton sp

(c) Lamellidens sp

(d) Pinctada sp

13. In a plant, the peduncle is elongated and it bears pedicillate flowers. The older flowers lie towards the base and the younger ones near the apex. The growth of the peduncle continues and more flowers are added. The inflorescence is

(a) raceme

(b) corymb

(c) umbel

(d) head

14. Which of these is zygomorhic aestivation? flower an example for with imbricate

(a) Calotropis

(b) Mustard

(c) Canna

(d) Cassia

15. Maize grain is

(a) seed

(b) embryo

(c) ovule

(d) fruit

16. At maturity, the impregnated with sieve plates become

(a) cellulose

(b) pectin

(c) suberin

(d) callose

17. Duramen is present in

(a) inner region of secondary wood

(b) part of sapwood

(c) outer region of secondary wood

(d) region of pericycle

18. The type of epithelial cells, which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as

(a) squamous epithelium

(b) columnar epithelium

(c) ciliated epithelium

(d) cubical epithelium

19. Largest single mass of lymphatic tissue in the body is

(a) lung

(c)liver

(b) spleen

(d) kidney

20. The plasma membrane consists mainly of

(a) phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer

(b) proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer

(c) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules

(d) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer

21. Fluidity of bio-membranes can be shown by

(a) electron microscope

(b) tissue culture

(c) phase-contrast microscope

(d) fluorescence microscope

22. Synaptonemal complex is formed during

(a) pachytene

(b) zygotene

(c) leptotene

(d) diplotene

23. Ascent of sap in plants was demonstrated by

(a) Girdling experiment

(b) Ganong's experiment

(c) Went experiment

(d) Lever auxanometer

24. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing microorganism?

(a) Casuarina equisetifolia

(b) Crotalaria juncea

(c) Cycas revoluta

(d) Cicer arietinum

25. Choose the correct statement.

(a) The C4-plants do not have RUBISCO

(b) Carboxylation of RuBP leads to the formation of phosphoglycolate PGA and

(c) Carboxylation of phosphoenol pyruvate results in the formation of C4-acids

(d) Decarboxylation of C4-acids occur in the mesophyll cells

26. Which one is not correct about Krebs' cycle?

(a) It is also called citric acid cycle

(b) The intermediate compound, which links glycolysis with Krebs' cycle is malic acid

(c) It occurs in mitochondria

(d) It starts with six carbon compound

27 Response of plants due to reversible turgor change in pulvinus is

(a) nyctinastic

(b) seismonastic

(e) heptonastic

(d) photonastic

28. The bioassay of auxin is

(a) Avena curvature test

(b) callus formation

(c) culture of fungus

(d) seed dormancy

29. In intestine, food materials are absorbed through

(a) villi

(b) sub-tentacular cells

(c) sub-mucosa

(d) gastric glands

30. The essential vitamin for blood coagulation is

(a) vitamin-B6

(b) vitamin-A

(c) vitamin-K

(d) vitamin-E

31. Severe Acute (SARS) Respiratory Syndrome

(a) is caused by a variant of Pneumococcus pneumoniae

(b) is caused by a variant of the common cold virus (corona virus)

(c) is an acute form of asthma

(d) affects non-vegetarians much faster than vegetarians

32. Maximum amount of oxygen is lost from the blood in the

(a) capillaries surrounding the tissue cells

(b) arteries of the body

(c) capillaries surrounding the alveoli

(d) left auricle of the heart

33. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have

(a) more sodium in his urine

(b) less amino acids in his urine

(c) more glucose in his blood

(d) less urea in his urine

34. Bones become fragile in

(a) osteoporosis

(b) gout

(c) arthritis

(d) None of these

35. Injury to vagus nerve in human is not likely to affect

(a) tongue movements

(b) gastrointestinal movements

(c) pancreatic secretion

(d) cardiac movements

36. Congenital removal of thyroid will cause

(a) myxoedema

(b) cretinism

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) exophthalmic goitre

37. Which of the following hormones is not a secretory product of human placenta?

(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin

(b) Prolactin

(c) Oestrogen

(d) Progesterone

38. What does the filiform apparatus do at t entrance into ovule?

(a) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid

(b) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac

(c) It brings about opening of the pollen tube

(d) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg

39. Graafian follicle contains

(a) oogonial cells

(b) corpus luteum

(c) theca externa and theca interna

(d) corpus albicans

40. Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct?

(a) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA

(b) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote

(c) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote

(d) lt has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote

41. Incomplete dominance is shown by

(a) primrose

(b) Mirabilis

(c) Helianthus

(d) China rose

42. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in

(a) association of 30 S, mRNA with formyl-met-tRNA

(b) association of 50 S sub-unit of ribosome with initiation complex

(c) formation of formyl-met-tRNA

(d) binding of 30 sub-units of ribosome with mRNA

43. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita are examples of

(a) analogous organs

(b) homologous organs

(c) vestigial organs

(d) retrogressive evolution

44 A good example for organic fertilizer, which improves phosphorus uptake, is

(a) VAM fungi

(b) Rhizobium

(c) Azospirillum

(d) None of these

45. What is a keystone species?

(a) A species which adds up to only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge impact on the community's organization and survival

(b) A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the community's organization

(c) A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community

(d) A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many other species

46. The 10% energy transfer law of food chain was given by

(a) Lederberg

(c) Weismann

(b) Lindemann

(d) Lindley

47. Soil formed after leaching and rich in Al and Fe is

(a) alluvial

(c) laterite

(b) podsol

(d) None of these

48. Chipko movement is related to

(a) Swaminathan

(b) Bahuguna

(c) Odum

(d) Misra

49. Ozone layer is being destroyed by

(a) SO2

(b) NO2

(c) CFCs

(d) photochemical smog

50. The protein products of the following Bt toxin genes cry I Ac and cry II Ab are responsible for controlling

(a) bollworm

(b) roundworm

(c) moth

(d) fruit fly

Answer 

1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (b)

4. (a)

5. (c)

6. (c)

7. (d)

8. (c)

9. (c)

10. (d)

11. (c)

12. (a)

13. (a)

14. (d)

15. (d)

16. (d)

17. (a)

18. (c)

19. (b)

20. (b)

21. (d)

22. (b)

23. (a)

24. (a)

25. (c)

26. (b)

27. (b)

28. (a)

29. (a)

30. (c)

31. (b)

32. (a)

33. (a)

34. (a)

35. (a)

36. (b)

37. (b)

38. (d)

39. (c)

40. (d)

41. (b)

42. (a)

43. (b)

44. (a)

45. (a)

46. (b)

47. (c)

48. (b)

49. (c)

50. (c)